The image above shows three polychromatophilic normoblasts. The one on the left is the least mature and the one on the right the most mature. Maturation is associated with
- Decrease in the size of the cell and nucleus: This is obvious.
- Clumping of chromatin: This is obvious.
- Increasing cytoplasmic acidophilia and decreased basophilia: The cells are flanked on each side by erythrocytes. The cytoplasm of the least mature cell (left most cell) is basophilic compared to that of the adjacent erythrocyte. The cytoplasm of the most mature cell (the right most cello) has lost basophilia and is almost the colour of the cytoplasm of the erythrocyte.
Am I reading this correctly?
“The one on the right is the least mature and the one on the left the most mature.”
But then later, under the 3rd item in the list, it says:
“The cytoplasm of the least mature cell (left most cell) is basophilic compared to that of the adjacent erythrocyte.”
These statements seem to contradict each other? (Apologies if I’m misunderstanding something here.)
Thanks for pointing out the mistake. It has been corrected.